A question about my DBQ...

<p>i need a little help with comphrending my question for my AP US History DBQ... here is the question...</p>

<p>"After the Civil War, the only way to truly enfranchise former slaves was by effectively disenfranchising their former masters."</p>

<p>From what i can understand of the question... it wants to know if the only way to give citizenship to slaves is to take away the right of citizenship from their former masters...</p>

<p>If that is the case then i would disagree with this statement... it is a bit hypocritical to say something like that after the outrage of things like the Black Codes, Voting Restrictions, and the KKK... were those not examples of white people trying to disenfranchise blacks?</p>

<p>I AM NOT ASKING ANYONE TO DO THIS DBQ... SO PLEASE DO NOT COME ON HERE AND TELL ME TO STOP BEING LAZY AND DO IT MYSELF... ALL I WANT IS A LITTLE GUIDANCE AS TO THE UNDERSTANDING OF THE QUESTION. </p>

<p>THANK YOU :)</p>

<p>If the voting reforms had been truly and completely carried out, then the former slaves would have had most of the political power and the former masters would have had much less than they used to, because the ratio of former slaves to former masters would be high.</p>

<p>EDIT: The key word is “effectively.” The masters would not have been legally disenfranchised, but they would have had less political clout and, in some Deep South states, practically NO political power.</p>

<p>thanks leafblade, </p>

<p>so could i say that the problem would only be solved through military occupation… because even if the whites were disenfranchised, they could still threaten and intimidate blacks through the KKK, literary tests and such?</p>

<p>or am i way off here?!!?</p>