<p>From the 2008-9 Booklet.</p>
<p>56.) For x such that 0<x<(pie/2), the expression:</p>
<p>[square-root(1-cos^2(x)]/sinx + [square-root(1-sin^2(x)]/cos(x)</p>
<p>is equivalent to,</p>
<p>F. 0
G. 1
H. 2
J. -tan(x)
K. sin2x</p>
<p>The answer is H. Can you guys please provide an explanation? Please? Thanks :) :) :)</p>
<p>By the identity sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1, you know that 1-cos^2(x)=sin^2(x), and 1-sin^2(x)=cos^2(x).</p>
<p>The first half of the expression comes out to sqrt(sin^2(x))/sinx, which simplifies to sinx/sinx=1. The second half of the expression is the same but with cosx. You don’t have to worry about negative roots because you are told that 0<x<pi/2</p>
<p>Finally, 1+1=2, which is the correct answer.</p>
<p>OMG, i can’t believe I forgot the basic cos^2(x) + sin^2(x)=1 identity. lol I freaked out for an hour because I went completely blank!! i hope this doesn’t happen on saturday!</p>
<p>tennisplaayer14, thank you so much!! 
:)</p>