Another Roe v. Wade question.

<p>under the "trimester framework" of this case, it's known that no regulation of the woman's abortion by the state is allowed in the 1st trimester.</p>

<p>2nd trimester, regulations are involved only in protecting the mother's health, and this is not to further the state's interest in potential life. </p>

<p>3rd trimester, -prohibition- is allowed when the fetus is viable provided that the mother's health/life is not at risk.</p>

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<p>so does this mean women who want abortion today are regulated if they reach the 3rd trimester? how does it exactly work? i never got this thing as it always got to me. gracias.</p>

<p>If I correctly understand what you are asking the third trimester regulations serve to limit abortions to severe medical necessity. Examples would include a mother dying or at risk of dying from complications (diabetes and preeclampsia are the main ones I can think of) and a dead or dying fetus. </p>

<p>It's not like a woman in her 7th or 8th month could just walk into a Planned Parenthood and just ask for an abortion. I can't imagine a woman wanting to do that anyway. There would have to be some kind of extenuating circumstance to warrant one.</p>

<p>1st. "Can't outlaw ever"
2nd "Can't outlaw, with exceptions"
3rd "Can outlaw, with exceptions"</p>

<p>so to your question, yes. but then again, if it's elective, they'll probably do it sooner anyway.</p>