grammar help

<p>Gothic architecture, A(that) B(was developed) in early France, is C(characterized) by souring spaces and light, D(airy designs). no error</p>

<p>anyone? 10char</p>

<p>No error; otherwise D?</p>

<p>i also chose no error
but the answr is A
how?</p>

<p>I think it’s because Gothic architecture is the subject …?</p>

<p>It should be:
Gothic architecture, WHICH was developed in early France, …</p>

<p>The writer is NOT trying to say that a particular branch of Gothic architecture that was developed in France is characterized by certain things. If that were the writer’s intent, there would be no commas around the (that…France) phrase.</p>

<p>grammatical reason: that is used in restrictive clauses, which (lol) are not set off by commas. which in nonrestrictive ones</p>

<p>i got it thanks alot =)</p>

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<p>Although “which” can also be used whenever “that” is. The reverse, however, is untrue, so (A) is wrong.</p>

<p>thanks silverturtle
here is another question i need help with:</p>

<p>A(Birds of) the madagascan species B(are) sometimes called false sunbirds C(because of) their similar diet, D(habitat), and appearance. No error.</p>

<p>The given answer is No error. But shouldnt it be C?</p>

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<p>No, “because of” is fine there. Are you thinking of the “due to”/“because of” distinction? If so, note that “because of” is (correctly) adverbially modifying the preceding clause. “due to” would be appropriate if the modification were adjectival, as in:</p>

<p>Birds of the madagascan species are sometimes called false sunbirds; this characterization is due to their similar diet, habitat, and appearance.</p>

<p>No, C is correct, what is your reasoning?</p>

<p>silverturtle: Is it okay to replace “due to” with “because of” or “as a result of” in your example sentence?</p>

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<p>Yea I learned this relatively recently. I was reading Rousseau and “he” uses which in instances wherein I would have used that. I thought, “not you too Rousseauuuu” (as I had finished reading Locke a short time before picking up Rousseau), but then I remembered that Rousseau hailed from Geneva and the work was translated.</p>

<p>And following the due to=adjective because=adverb distinction, writers almost always place due to after a form of “due to.” Just something I noticed, but it makes sense.</p>