Grammar question: who vs whom

<p>No matter how many times I look this up, it seems I still can't quite grasp it. Or rather I think I do, but a few days later I end up missing it again. </p>

<p>I know that you use who for subject and whom for object, but how do you clearly determine if it is a subject/object?</p>

<p>Ex: Give the letter to ____ answers the door. </p>

<p>The correct answer is whoever, but isn't it an object because you're giving the letter to HIM, so therefore whomever? </p>

<p>Or this one:</p>

<p>The wealthy socialite decided that her fortune would be left to (whomever) of her relatives could present her with the best plan for dispensing part of the money to deserving charities. </p>

<p>The correct answer is whoever, but I thought it'd be whomever as she's giving the money to the relative, meaning the socialite is the subject and the receiver is the object. </p>

<p>I'm getting these questions from Grubers SAT writing workbook, by the way. </p>

<p>If anyone could explain this to me I'd be extremely grateful.</p>

<p>HE answers the door not HIM answers the door.
Give the letter to he who answers the door, not Give the letter to him who answers the door. </p>

<p>The second one is the same. HE could present her… not HIM could present her. He is doing the action. The wealthy socialite is not</p>

<p>Ah, I see! Thank you! </p>

<p>Also, could you explain why it is “if I were he” and not “if I were him” ?</p>

<p>Pretty much sums it up.</p>

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<p>The verb to be is not a transitive verb; it does not take an object. In the correct version of the clause, he isn’t a direct object; it’s a predicate nominative. That’s why it’s in the nominative case. </p>

<p>For at least the foreseeable future, but I suspect that rule will change eventually.</p>

<p>BestOfTheBest, how do you justify such an absolute?</p>

<p>I would’ve sworn that I had seen questions where ‘who vs. whom’ was the error, on actual QAS tests.</p>