<p>At this point, I think I am familiar with all the writing rules but there's one that still bothers me, which is the tense rule (when to use present perfect, past tense, simple perfect etc)</p>
<p>It seems that it has a lot to do with the dates and such. But there are times when there aren't dates to indicate the tense. </p>
<p>Can someone give me a clear explanation for this rule? </p>
<p>Examples (with dates):</p>
<p>After the uprising of October 10, 1911, that has led to the establishment of a Chinese republic, many Chinese Americans decided to return to China in hopes of a brighter future there. No error. </p>
<p>Answer being "has led"</p>
<p>From 1566 until 1576 Santa Elena, now an excavation site in South Carolina, was the capital of Spanish Florida; however, it has became an English settlement by 1735. No error.</p>
<p>Answer being "has became"</p>
<p>Examples (w/o dates):</p>
<p>Although she considers her chemistry research complete, she has heeded her professor's advice and is conducting three additional experiments. No error. </p>
<p>Answer being "no error" - explanation on how "has heeded" is correct?</p>
<p>The derelict old house across from the warehouses and the even more decrepit one just beside them have been placed on the list of historical landmarks. No error.</p>
<p>Answer being "have been placed" </p>
<p>Feel free to add more examples related to the same rule.</p>