<p>I just finished writing my Cal II exam today, and there's one problem that has been bothering me...</p>
<p>Determine if the improper integral from a=4 to b=inf of (1/(x-3)^2) converges, and if it does, where does it converge?</p>
<p>I know that it converges and I showed that (since the limit exists), but I cannot figure out WHERE it converges. Since a=4, I was able to deduce that this is basically an infinite series, where n=1 of (1/n^2). From there, I got lost.</p>