<p>Professor Chen repeated [her point that] the hero, if [given] the chance [to relive] the moment, would choose to [do it.]</p>
<p>According to my SAT Practice test, the error of this sentence occurs at [do it]. While I can recognize that it was incorrect (sounded awkward to me) , I do not fully understand this error, so if anyone could explain it, I'd appreciate it a lot!</p>
<p>what book is this from?</p>
<p>The Official SAT Study Guide, March 2005 and beyond.</p>
<p>I think it’s related to an error in verb tense.
I’m not sure if I’m right, but I think that the correct sentence should be something like:</p>
<p>“Professor Chen repeated her point that the hero, if given the chance to relive the moment, would have chosen to do it.”</p>
<p>I don’t know if I’m right, but tbh, I probably would have put “No error” after reading this.</p>
<p>Where was this question in the section, like was it at the beginning or near the end?</p>
<p>Tense could be the issue. I do like 1x6 suggestion. Or could be “…would have chosen to have done it.” A bit awkward to say, but parallel.</p>
<p>Error is at D… Proper idiom should be “choose to do SO” not do it. Sounds awkward anyways if there is no error.</p>
<p>I think it might be redundant to put the it… … could the entire last bracketed phrase just be thrown out?</p>
<p>I agree with #7. It should be Professor Chen repeated [her point that] the hero, if [given] the chance [to relive] the moment, would choose to [do SO.]
only “so” can modify the phrase “relieve the moment”. It can only modify a noun</p>
<p>It is Test #6, Section 4, Question 26.</p>
<p>Thanks all for the help and input!</p>
<p>The error in the sentence is not an improper idiom. The error is an ambiguous pronoun reference.</p>
<p>The word “it” does not refer to anything in the sentence. “It” is a pronoun which MUST refer to a noun. But if you look at the sentence, there is no pronoun that “it” can refer to. So the error here is the occurance of an ambiguous pronoun.</p>
<p>Most people would assume that “it” refers to “relive” but “relive” is a verb NOT a noun. Thus, the answer is D. “Do it” should be replaced with “do so.”</p>
<p>SATExcellence… no… it’s an idiomatic error…</p>
<p>NspiredOne, I don’t think the error can be term as an “idiomatic error.”</p>
<p>Using “do it” is fine as long as there is a noun which “it” can refer to.</p>
<p>I was guessing that you got your explanation from the college board online course so I logged in to check (I’m a subscriber of the online course) and indeed, the college board says that the error is due to an improper idiom.</p>
<p>The thing is, you have to realize that most of the college board’s explanation is horrible and sometimes even incorrect.</p>
<p>And no it is not okay to say do it… I don’t know where you’re from but that is simply not the way American’s speak.</p>
<p>@NspiredOne</p>
<p>LOL. What has this got to do with the way Americans speak? </p>
<p>The fact that you’re linking the way Americans speak to grammar tells me a lot about your understanding of the SAT.</p>
<p>The SAT is a standardized test that is taken by students all over the world. If this kind of “speech” was something that only Americans know, do you think then, that this particular question would be fair to all the other international students if it appeared on an actual SAT test?</p>
<p>It IS okay to use “do it” if there is a pronoun present in the sentence. What you’re saying is that everytime the word “do” appears, it has to be followed by the word “it”. This is clearly not true.</p>
<p>Take this sentence for example:</p>
<p>John said that skydiving was enjoyable and if given a choice, would choose to DO IT again.</p>
<p>In this sentence skydiving is the noun so it’s perfectly fine to use DO IT.</p>
<p>I hope you understand what I mean.</p>
<p>I think that’s extremely evident that do so in the case would not work. Rather it is an idiomatic error in the sense that 1. it is not idiomatic in its context 2. it lacks a antecedent in the OP’s sentence so Do so is the proper idiom that also fixes the antecedent referral issue. And actually yes, idioms do vary with country. An idiom error, to many American test takers is even difficult to identify due to this variance in region etc.</p>
<p>You’re right that idioms do vary with country. However, I really doubt that you will find these differences appear as errors on the SAT. The SAT tests ususally tests on prepositional idioms that is used in the same way regardless of region.</p>
<p>I quote from your previous post, " it lacks a antecedent in the OP’s sentence so Do so is the proper idiom that also fixes the antecedent referral issue. "</p>
<p>So it looks like you agree with me, but it’s just that our way of NAMING the error is different. </p>
<p>Feel free to check the forum. There are other CCers who asked the similar question. Look at these threads and see the explanations that were offered. None of them terms this type of error as an “idiomatic error.”</p>
<p>I did a quick search on the forum and found two threads as examples:</p>
<p><a href=“http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/352244-question-about-grammar-problem-blue-book.html[/url]”>http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/352244-question-about-grammar-problem-blue-book.html</a></p>
<p><a href=“http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/1042722-one-grammar-question-idioms.htm[/url]”>http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/1042722-one-grammar-question-idioms.htm</a></p>
<p>I’m sure there are many other threads which asks for the explanation for the same question but it would be ridiculous to list them all out.</p>
<p>Either way, I appreciate your response and I’ll let this “debate” end here.</p>
<p>It appears that you agree with me actually. I still insist that it is a idiom error (that)obviously in itself contains a antecedent referent error. Either way i don’t understand why you take everything on this site as god’s own word. No one here is a grammarian… No need to take 100 percent trust in someone else’s word. I also like how you say you wrote a SAT prep book. If your knowledge is on the complete basis of others’, or people on this board, you are completely misleading and liable to MANY errors.</p>
<p>It’s not that I take other people’s word as god’s word. I showed you those threads because there is no way that you would agree with me if I base my stance on my own explanation. I merely showed you those threads to further illustrate my point. </p>
<p>How is it that I am agreeing with you when I mentioned the pronoun reference error before you did? </p>
<p>I guess this is going no where and it would be pointless to continue any further discussion.</p>