questions

Test Preparation SAT Preparation
1

<p>In the 1960s, Cesar Chavez (organized) migrant farmworkers, (many of them) Mexican Americans, (into) a labor union that supported nationwide boycotts (of both) lettuce and grapes.</p>

<p>Why is many of them correct? Doesn't it need a verb?</p>

<p>Perhaps as (a consequence of) warfare (that erupted) when natural resources became scarce, many of Easter Island's large stone statures, called Moai, (have been toppled) by the islanders (themselves) three centuries ago.
Shouldn't consequence be plural? What is wrong with "have been toppled?"</p>

<p>The illuminated manuscripts in the rare-books collection, (all more than) five hundred years old, (are) the (products of) a scribal art (long since lost).</p>

<p>Why is "long since lost" correct?</p>

2

<p>

</p>

<p>“many of them Mexican Americans” is an appositive not a dependent adjective clause, so it doesn’t need a verb. For example:</p>

<p>Appositive, no verb: “Bob, a dog, was very happy.”</p>

<p>Adjective clause, includes verb: “Bob, who was a dog, was very happy.”</p>

3

<p>

</p>

<p>Verbs are singular, so the toppling would be the singular “consequence.”</p>

<p>“have been toppled” needs to be “were toppled” because an exact time is given: “three centuries ago.” For example:</p>

<p>“I last ate two centuries ago.”</p>

4

<p>

</p>

<p>“long since lost” is the correct form. To check the correctness of the phrase “long since,” use this technique: replace “long since” with “long ago” and move it after the past participle. For example:</p>

<p>“long since lost” goes to “lost long ago.”</p>

5

<p>Uhh, could you explain the “long since” technique again. I had no idea what it meant.</p>