<p>o yeah ur explanation makes sense too lol but still murky on this :(</p>
<p>it’s just that in the first example the “who” is way behind so this distance negates the usual grammar rule that the closest noun before “who” is its antecedent, I guess.
However, in the second example, “who” directly follows “girls,” which translates into “girls” being the antecedent… …</p>
<p>i dunno; this was the best i could think of. </p>
<p>Thanx anyways !! :)</p>