<p>1.) In the eighteenth century, the English emphasis on the study of Greek and Latin allowed it to produce some fine poetry written in classical verse forms.</p>
<p>(A) the English emphasis on the study of Greek and Latin allowed it
(C) English emphasis on the study of Greek and Latin allowed them </p>
<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer A :
Choice (A) involves illogical pronoun reference. There is no noun in the sentence to which the singular pronoun it can logically refer.</p>
<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer C :
Choice (C) results in illogical pronoun reference. There is nothing in the sentence to which the plural pronoun them can logically refer. </p>
<p>My Question: The answer to the question is E, but my question is about CB explanation of why choice A and C are wrong. Is "English" considered plural or singular? Either way, why would "it" and "them" NOT logically refer back to the English?</p>
<p>Also, is "America" considered plural or singular?</p>