<p>Well, if a = 0 and x!=a, then x!=0, this means: (x-a) = x - 0 != 0.
This makes function not have any zeros in denominator but then function is absent at the moment when x=a (by definition) -- zeroed x.
You may try manipulating with all negative numbers which make function basically generate zero at the moment when x=(-a) due to that squaring in the numerator. However, there might be another lacks which I'm not yet aware of so don't trust me completely :)
For example, let's say a=-1.
This means, if x=1: (1 -1)/2 = 0, and so the y is the same if x=a=-1, which would be:
(1-1)/-2 = 0. I can't see any possibility of division by zero here.</p>
<p>Am I reading your post wrong, cause I didn't see any factorials. Anyway, your question is kind of confusing. You say x is always equal to a, so g(x) will always be undefined.</p>
<p>If you look at it another way, it looks like a derivative. f'(x)=lim(a-->x) of f(x)-f(a)/x-a . In this case, f(x) would equal x^2, so g(x) would equal 2x, which is continuous for all real values of x anyway. Maybe you could put the exact question up.</p>
<p>First of all, 0/0 is DEFINITELY undefined, anything over zero is. Second, it doesn't say g(a)=8 it doesn't even look like it says that. Anyway, g(a) would be 0/0 if you took the time to look at the equation.</p>