Does this mean theres a good chance of there being a good curve?

Test Preparation SAT Preparation
1

<p>Because by December, you could assume that most genius seniors have already taken it, and those seniors left taking it are the ones that werent happy with scores, meaning there would be not as many geniuses who got like none wrong, which would have brought the curve down.</p>

2

<p>No. The equating is completed before the test is administered. If the test was harder than normal, then there's a higher chance of a beneficial curve. It is not based on the performance of the test takers.</p>

3

<p>^that Really Sucks!!!</p>

4

<p>You're a moron. The definition of standardized test taking is based on test takers' performance.</p>

5

<p>huh?.......</p>

6

<p>so it is afterwards?????...please let it be after!!!!!!! it is right?.....they told me it was!!! but now all of a sudden all the CCer's are telling me before....</p>

7

<p>Haha. The definition of standardized test is a test that is STANDARD (that is to say, the same or similar) for everyone, not that it its scores are normalized based on the test-takers' performance...</p>

8

<p>damn it......princeton review and the underground guide lied........bell curve my ass</p>

9

<p>It is based on past test taker's performance on the throwaway equating section beforehand.</p>

10

<p>
[quote]
You're a moron. The definition of standardized test taking is based on test takers' performance.

[/quote]

Please do some research before spitting off invective. Your definition of standardized test is fundamentally flawed. If a particular subset of test takers (e.g. December) does poorly, the predetermined equating for that test will not be changed because equating is supposed to standardize across different test administrations. How could a "standardized" test be based on student performance? It is based on difficulty.</p>