<p>I own shares in a closely-held, that is, not publicly traded, company. We use the shares as a way to migrate ownership over the years.</p>
<p>Since these are not publicly traded, and since the purchase or sale of them is determined by a series of 5-year agreements, there's no market for selling them for me right now (not yet to the about-to-retire age); the only way I could sell them would be to leave the company, wiping out future income.</p>
<p>Any issues with multiplying my percentage of ownership times the (determined by accountants) value of the company, to determine what their "real" value, that is, the value of the investment in the company, is?</p>