<p>Hey guys, on page 86 of the Ultimate Guide to SAT Grammar, there is a error-identification problem that confuses me:</p>
<p>Located on the outskirts of Lincoln National Forest in New Mexico, White Oaks had become a boomtown following the discovery of silver and gold in the nearby Jicarilla Mountains in 1879.</p>
<p>For some reason, the error of this sentence is "had become" which is supposed to be "became." The past perfect is used whenever one event happens before another, correct? Why doesn't the past perfect work here? Doesn't the word "following" indicate that one event occurred before the other?</p>
<p>“Become” and “had become” are two different verb tenses (I don’t remember which tenses they are, and that’s not the point). “Had become” implies that there’s some specific time period that is being considered; my mind wants the sentence to say “had become ___ BY 1879” instead of “had become ____ IN 1879.” In contrast, “become” is more definitive and goes with “in 1879.”</p>
<p>Do you see the difference? It’s very subtle. “Had become, had ____” implies that there’s a certain time frame of the past being considered.</p>
<p>For the record, my explanation is not coming from any grammar book; it’s just my understanding of it. So you probably want to check with an actual grammar source.</p>
<p>Yes, but the past perfect is connected to the earlier event, not the later one. In this case, becoming a boomtown was the later event.</p>
<p>“White Oaks became a boomtown following the discovery of silver and gold” and “White Oaks had become a boomtown before the discovery of silver and gold” would both be correct.</p>