Integral of (1/x) dx from 1 to 0

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1

<p>How do i do it? I tried improper integra but it didn't work out...</p>

2

<p>Try going from 0 to 1 on your calculator. Also the antiderivative of 1/x is lnx. Hope that helps!</p>

3

<p>it doesn’t work because the integral is lnx.</p>

<p>ln0 does not exist.</p>

<p>neither does 1/x : x=0.</p>

<p>so the question is therefore impossible. there is no way to find the area under a function where one of the endpoints doesn’t exist.</p>

<p>listen to your calc :-)</p>

4

<p>The integral of (1/x) dx from 0 to 1 is infinity so it technically doesn’t exist because you get ln(x) evaluated from 0 to 1 so ln(1) - lim a->0 ln(a) which is, in bad notation, 0-(-infinity) = infinity.</p>

5

<p>does not exist</p>