Math, does this work?

<ol>
<li>if x is not equal to 0 and x is inversely proportional to y, which of the following is directly proportional to 1/x^2?
a.-1/y^2
b.1/y^2
c.1/y
d.y
e.y^2</li>
</ol>

<p>E is correct and i looked up the explanation on CB but i found it confusing. My method was to understand that x is inversely proportional to y, therefore x=k/y. and taking the inverse gives 1/x=y/k. Square both sides and you get 1/x^2=y^2/k^2. I just neglect the k^2 since its a constant and get y^2. Does this make mathematical sense/law?</p>

<p>Yes, because k = 1.
1/x - y/1
1/x^2 - y^2/1^2
1/x^2 - y^2</p>

<p>do you just assume k is 1? or sorry where are you getting the k=1 from?</p>

<p>k is in zahlen</p>

<p>I set k = 1 (I never used k when I did this problem) because 1 over x is equal to y over something. The something is equal to 1. If it were 2 over x is equal to y over something. Then the something is equal to 2.</p>

<p>makes sense… x=k/y same thing as x/1=k/y which would make it inversely proportional.</p>