<p>I think Set is right about the last prairie question. Wasn’t there a question about how the loess(sp?) plant went undisturbed by farmers or something. And the answer was because it was on hills/slopy land, so farmers couldn’t farm there.</p>
<p>Also to the question you guys are talking about with Shakespeare, I’m pretty sure I put that he misused words, which showed a need for a dictionary, because he didn’t have anything to reference to know if he was using it right. I don’t recall him doing it “intentionally” in the answer…</p>
<p>^I agree. Didn’t the passage say that Shakespeare misused words because he didn’t know any better, which implied a need for a dictionary. In reality, Shakespeare may have misused words for comedy, etc. like someone else said, but I don’t remember the passage saying that.</p>
<p>I don’t exactly remember the question, but I’m positive the correct answer is not the one about misusing words. I put something about Shakespeare benefiting from a dictionary (if that even was a choice).</p>
<p>@yankeedood1202
I don’t know the context, but it’s definitely has understood.</p>
<p>Yes that is the last prairie question!! It asked something like why they couldnt crop those plants and the answer was because their roots were too deep down for them to be plowed down. Yes that is definitely the last one I remember it now.</p>
<p>No the last prairie question was why didn’t the plants get destroyed by farmers. The answer was because the plants generally lived on slopes where farmers didn’t plow.</p>
<p>The Shakespeare question was a difficult one simply because any Shakespeare enthusiast could agree that Shakespeare did intentionally misuse words to his benefit. He knew he could do it and get away with it. It mightve not been mentioned in the passage so Idk</p>