<p>Ok, then let's look at the argument. First, the claim that philosophy is "divorced from reality" rests on a false dichotomy - namely, the idea that if a method of investigation doesn't rely on "empirical evidence and trial and error", then the method is divorced from reality. The fact that philosophy doesn't involve laboratory experimentation does not mean it's divorced from reality -- in fact, the professed goal of much of philosophy is to investigate the fundamental nature of reality. The investigation is just carried out without quantifiable experimentation. Furthermore, much of philosophy DOES use empirical evidence, such as the specialty area known as Philosophy of Mind. Philosophers of Mind have to know a whole lot about contemporary research in neuroscience/neurobiology because it is useful to rely on such research in the advancement of their claims. And Philosophy of Mind touches on many other branches of philosophy. </p>
<p>The problem is that many of philosophy's central problems preclude the use of scientific testing - such as the question of what constitutes a state of knowledge, or how words get their reference. But can we really say that these problems aren't part of reality? If they're not part of reality, then what are they part of? Are they "made up"? Some would say yes, and there's no convincing those people. But I think it's abundantly obvious that words do refer to objects, and that people do have knowledge, so the problems surrounding how these states of affairs come to exist can't possibly be "not part of reality." Thus, philosophy's methods are not necessarily divorced from reality, and neither are its objects of study; so the claim that philosophy is so divorced falls flat. No ad-hominem attack necessary.</p>
<p>Finally, I want to point out that the idea that "life is not a discrete system" is utterly incoherent. What does Max mean by "life" in this context? This idea needs to be defined before he can make his claim. Furthermore, philosophy does not rely solely on "pure logic", and I'm not even sure what Max has in mind when he says this. If he means formal logic, he's completely wrong; hardly any arguments are ever formalized in the philosophical literature. If he means that the rules of logic can't be applied when making arguments about problems that exist "within reality," then he just defeated his own claim -- for he used some of the rules of logic in his argument!</p>
<p>In general, it's not a good idea to make sweeping claims about an academic discipline when it's obvious that one knows next to nothing about it.</p>