<p>UCLAri</p>
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I really don't get how you get to this. What does this have to do with the consumer making a decision to eat less high-intensity foods? You realize, I hope, that market equilibriums are the product of both the consumer and producer.
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<p>You said that it is immoral to eat a high-protein diet. Thus, anybody eating a high protein diet would be considered immoral. Deciding to eat a low-protein diet does not make you more moral than one who does not; that is my argument. If you decide to become vegan on your own, good for you. But that does not mean that I am immoral.</p>
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The moral argument is never absolute. That's the point. I never said that this argument was the truth of scripture. I just said that an argument can legitimately be made. Whether you agree with the assumptions of the argument, however, is your prerogative. You clearly do not.
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<p>If you can't apply a moral rule consistently, then it is obviously not universally preferable. For example, you make a moral rule that it is okay for you to attack person B and person B cannot retaliate. Clearly, this rule fails because you disallow person B to attack you against your objections. Similarly, if you want to prescribe diet A onto people against their objections, then they should be able to prescribe diet B onto you against your objections. Diet B can be something you're allergic to or even be a diet composed of nothing.</p>
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Really though, your definition of morality is, in my mind, too specific. And who said that I have to be a paragon of morality to understand that something is immoral? I've lied. That does not mean that I do not recognize the immorality of the act. I need not have never told a lie to know that lying is wrong.
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<p>See above.</p>
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How is it not immoral, then, to cheat on a spouse? To lie to a dear friend? Neither of those requires application of force.
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<p>I am not being too specific. I am merely requiring that any moral proposition be consistent in its application to be true. As for lying and such, there is the law of proportionality. You don't blow someone's head off for putting their foot on your lawn.</p>
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First of all, very little of this is clear-cut.</p>
<p>Let's use an example that is a common issue in US-Mexican relations. The water from the Colorado River now almost never makes it to Mexico. The US has managed to basically suck it all dry by the time it makes it to San Diego, leaving nothing or little more than the dregs for Mexico. Sure, it used to make it, but not now.</p>
<p>So is the water from the Colorado River ours to suck dry simply because it originates in the US's territory, or do the Mexicans have some right to the water that would otherwise flow into their territory? And if the agriculture that Mexicans would do using that water is now made impossible, are American farmers to blame? Or is it the Mexicans' fault for not winning a war some time ago? Or is our fault for consuming too many goods from California?</p>
<p>Is it ever really that clear?
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<p>It's not clear in this instance because there is no system to determine boundaries for homesteading water. But why is there no system is the question you should ask? Because there is no demand for a system when there are no private water rights. Just as the fence was made to make land property rights clear, a system would be made to make water property rights clear if water were privatized.</p>
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That's a pretty wild assumption. It also suffers the same flaw as your response to my "morality." You assume that one must be Moses himself to ever recognize a moral dilemma. That is just not true.
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<p>This is not a flaw; this is called consistency. If X person wishes to attack Y against his strong objections, then X should also allow attacks against himself from any and all people against his strong objections.</p>
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Why does everything have to be based on negative rights? Why can't it be based on that which benefits your fellow human being? I don't have to be a nice, polite, kind, compassionate human being. It doesn't mean that a jerkhole, lying, cheating swine is by any means moral just because he doesn't apply force on others. Morality is a choice. It's always a choice. That's why it's so hard to actually be a moral human being: you have a choice. Nobody's saying that you have to be honest. Nobody's saying you can't cheat on your spouse. Nobody's saying you have to be polite to people. Nobody's saying that you have to be a good, caring parent. It's your right to not do any of them. It doesn't mean that you are moral, however, if you choose to not do those.
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<p>You are merely listing your own personal preferences. For any moral rule to be valid, it must be consistent. Is a parent who lies to his child moral? No, that is clearly a form of neglect. Lying and fraud are not moral because the liar would not want them to be consistently applied to him. A liar and a cheat would not want to be lied and cheated by everyone at all times, thus he is not consistent and is in fact immoral.</p>
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Dangerous assumption. Plenty of private sector jobs are not exactly honest.
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<p>They are not dishonest based on their very nature though. I'm sure there are some that are dishonest, but that is not the very nature of a private sector job.</p>
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Plenty of public sector work is perfectly honest. Again with the overly defined lines...
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<p>Conversely, public jobs are funded by force so their very nature is dishonest. To be consistent, government employees must allow anybody and everybody to steal however many $ they want at anytime since government employees do that to people. Of course, this does not happen.</p>
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Find me arable land remaining that can still be homesteaded. You'll find that very very little remains. Humans have essentially come to utilize all but the remaining forests and deserts.
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<p>So then who is "immoral" if people get stranded on mountain and starve to death? Starvation is not a an act perpetrated onto anyone, thus it is exempt from being evaluated as a consistent moral rule.</p>
<p>Also, much of the farmlands are owned by governments which are funded through force, thus their tools for obtaining arable land are illegitimately obtained and the land is NOT homesteaded (since legitimately obtained tools is a prerequisite to homesteading). If I steal your cow and milk it, is the milk really mine? No, I stole the cow.</p>