<p>Among the (earliest) telescopes (were) Galilean telescopes, modeled after the simple instruments (built by) Galileo, the first person (having used) telescopes to study the stars and planets. No error</p>
<p>"Having used" should stand out to everyone as wrong. But if considered as an absolute phrase, wouldn't it be considered right?
Take this example:
Strong wind, (it having swept almost unchecked over great distances,) was a prime component of the grassland climate.
Answer: No Error.</p>
<p>The structure of the first example about Galileo resembles my example to the extent that it's making me think that there's no error in "having used".
Could someone please explain?</p>
<p>It’s best not to over-think and trip up on these writing questions. “Having used” is blatantly wrong, so therefore it’s wrong.</p>
<p>As far as technicalities go, there’s an improper use of a gerund (words ending in -ing), where an infinitive (to + verb) is needed. Swap out the two and whichever one sounds better is right. The SAT often tests gerunds vs. infinitives, but they’re not always obvious, as indicated here.</p>
<p>But you use gerunds/infinitives after verbs, not after nouns (the first person). “Having” is certainly not a gerund just because it has “ing”. And if I were to say: “the first person to have” it wouldn’t be an infinitive either.
So, what is the grammatical explanation to this question?</p>