<p>Recent studies indicate that eating chocolate and other sweets neither cause or aggravate acne.</p>
<p>answer is neither causes or aggravates..... both singular verbs.... is the subject in this sentence "eating"?</p>
<p>(Uncertain how to proceed with the scene, the actors stopped, awaiting) for further instructions from the director.</p>
<p>Answer is :Because they were uncertain how to proceed with the scene, the actors stopped and awaited</p>
<p>Why? what's wrong with the original?</p>
<p>1st one you need neether nor.</p>
<p>2nd one is just style i think. The 2nd choice sends better.</p>
<h1>1: When you use “neither,” it must be followed by “nor.”</h1>
<h1>2: The original uses a comma like the average American (i.e. atrociously). It sounds awkward, looks ugly, and abuses the poor comma…</h1>
<p>“neither” isn’t always followed by “nor,” as it isn’t in Neither of them is here. But in that construction where two alternatives are introduced, as in Neither he nor she did the homework and We neither want nor need your help, “neither … nor” is the correct construction, and “neither … or” is always wrong.</p>
<p>
In accordance with standard English, there’s nothing wrong with either of the commas in that sentence.</p>
<p>One error is that “awaiting for” is improper. You either wait for something (Mary waited for the bus) or await it (Mary awaited the bus). await literally means to wait for.</p>
<p>Another problem with the original sentence is that it is not precise. I wrote a post about this question three months ago and decided to dig it up for you:
To elaborate, participial phrases tell you of an action that occurs while another action is occurring. In this case, “the actors stopped, awaiting further instructions” implies that the actors stopped while awaiting further instructions. This is not exact. Exact is that the actors stopped and then awaited further instructions. So you simply say “they stopped and awaited further instructions.”</p>
<p>i see!!! and yeah i realize that it needs neither nor construction. i was just wondering why the verbs were singular… is it because it refers to the singular subject, “eating”?</p>
<p>Yes, the subject is “eating.” It is a gerund, i.e., a verb form ending in “ing” that functions as a noun. The words “chocolate and other sweets” are objects associated with the gerund, and not the subjects of the sentence.</p>
<p>You could write: </p>
<p>Recent studies indicate that chocolate and other sweets neither cause or aggravate acne.</p>
<p>The plural version of the verbs would be correct, with the “eating” removed, because then “chocolate and other sweets” would become the subject.</p>
<p>yuppp thanks!</p>
<p>another question
2 First run in 1867 and still taking place every summer, the Belmont Stakes, a horse race for thoroughbred three-year-olds, (was )one of the oldest races in the United States.</p>
<p>Answer is “is”
i chose “has been”…why am i wrong?</p>
<p>and
(In addition to) (being) a talented pianist and composer, B</p>
<p>also
Babe Ruth is regarded by many (having been) the greatest baseball player in history, and he remains arguably the most celebrated figure in North American sports.</p>
<p>I chose As but why isn’t it “to be”?</p>
<p>and (With one) of the most successful African American businesses in history, the Motown Record Corporation was founded in 1959 in Detroit by Berry Gordy, Jr.</p>
<p>Answer is “one” but why can’t it be “as one”</p>
<p>Starting with the easiest one:</p>
<h1>9, the standard English expression is “regard as” not “regard to be.” College Board is pretty rigid about the use of infinitives (such as “to be”) where they don’t belong.</h1>
<h1>10, the Motown Record Corporation is/was one of the most successful African American businesses. “One” works, because it makes the first phrase an appositive, modifying the Motown Record Corporation. If you choose “as one,” this creates the expectation that “as one” will be followed by something that the Motown Record Corporation did as one of the most successful African American businesses in history. In this case, you would have to interpret the sentence as meaning that it was founded as one of the most successful African American businesses. But it wasn’t founded to be one of the most successful businesses, it was founded to make records (recordings). Also, it wasn’t one of the most successful businesses when it was founded; it only became highly successful over time.</h1>
<h1>8, the question about the Belmont Stakes is a little harder, but “is” reflects the current status of the race as one of the oldest. Technically, “has been” does refer to a situation that applied in the past and continues to apply. So I can see why you would find this difficult.</h1>
<p>We do know that the Belmont Stakes is one of the oldest still being run now. This makes “is” valid. However, we don’t know when it started to be among the oldest–definitely not before 1867! There might have been races in colonial days that were run annually until the 1930’s, or 1980’s, even. </p>
<p>Aside from that, “has been” has connotations of past status that is no longer held. For example, an actor or a politician might be called a “has been” if he was popular at one time, but is no longer popular. For this reason, the use of “has been” in this sentence would create an expectation that the next part of the sentence might say that the Belmont Stakes had been supplanted as one of the oldest races–which logically could not happen. The expectation that it had been replaced as one of the oldest would be much stronger if the words “had been” were used instead, though.</p>
<p>I can’t say I consider this one of the College Board’s best efforts in question-writing.</p>
<p>NSpire these equations are pretty easy lol. :0</p>
<h1>8, part 2, about B</h1>