<p>After Einstein, neither time-intervals or space-intervals ( i.e. distances) is absolute; time and distance depend upon one’s frame of reference. </p>
<p>Or and is were both answer choices for errors in the sentence as was depend and ie...
I believe both or and is are wrongly used. Can someone clarify which is the correct answer or if it's neither? :\ lol.</p>
<p>“or” and “is” are both wrong: “or” should be “nor,” and “is” should be “are.” Also, most style books say that a comma must follow “i.e.” Moreover, the sentence’s first clause is illogical: the nature of reality did not change “After Einstein”; we simply had a different conception of reality. So one could argue for the presence of four errors in just the first clause alone.</p>
<p>The error is not following the “neither . . . nor” parallel construction. The “or” in choice A is incorrect; it should be “nor.” But be careful: While the “is” in choice C may sound funny coming on the heels of “intervals” and “distances,” it’s actually correct because it matches the “neither . . . nor” construction. As a parallel unit, “neither . . . nor” takes a singular verb.
k…</p>
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<p>No, the verb agrees with the second subject – both are plural in this case.</p>
<p>well that’s what the website said, shall I stop using it?</p>
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</p>
<p>What Website?</p>
<p>ugh, Sparknotes… LOL.</p>
<p>Can you link to the specific page?</p>
<p>the link doesn’t work… :\ It was for a mini-test.</p>
<p>Well, I’ll just explain it here:</p>
<p>“either” and “neither,” when followed by a prepositional phrase, are always singular. For example:</p>
<p>“Neither of you is nice.”</p>
<p>When used as part of a correlative conjunction, “neither” and “either” can take plural or singular verbs, depending on the plurality or singularity of the second subject:</p>
<p>“Either you or he is edible.”</p>
<p>“Neither Bob nor his friends are salamanders.”</p>
<p>Thanks. :D</p>
<p>RR says that neither…nor is always singular when tested on the SAT :(</p>
<p>I’ll trust the Associated Press Stylebook, The Columbia Guide to Standard American English, and the Chicago Manual of Style over Sparknotes and Rocket Review.</p>
<p>So there IS two mistakes in this question?</p>
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<p>There are at least two, potentially four.</p>
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<p>“After” in this context doesn’t signify a time period. It means “in view of.” It connotes that the “view” is retrospect, meaning if you say “after all the advice,” you literally mean “in view of” the advice but also imply that you took action after the advice was given (obviously). It essentially means “in accordance with.” </p>
<p>[After[2</a>] - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster Dictionary](<a href=“http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/after[2]]After[2”>http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/after[2])</p>
<p>^ You’re right. So, we’re down to two definite mistakes and three depending on what style book one subscribes to.</p>
<p>There are no “style” questions on the SAT though, because it’s largely subjective, right?</p>