<p>The television station (has received) many complaints (about) the clothing advertisements, (which some) viewers condemn (to be) tasteless. (No error)</p>
<h2>Answer is at the end-- COULD SOMEONE EXPLAIN WHY?</h2>
<p>The architect's research shows that even when builders (construct) houses (of stone), they (still) use the hammer more than (any tool).</p>
<h2>"any tool" is wrong-- is it because it has to be "any OTHER tool"?</h2>
<h2>idiom question: do you say tendency to or tendency of?</h2>
<p>Answer to first question: "to be" is wrong-- PLEASE EXPLAIN WHY THIS IS</p>
<p>They can’t use the hammer more than “any tool” since they can’t use the hammer more than they use the hammer. It should be “any other tool.”</p>
<p>“to be” should be changed to “as” because it uses “to be” in the wrong way.</p>
<p>
Do you say tendency to or tendency of?
</p>
<p>The more common use is “tendency to”, but both are grammatically correct given they are being used correctly.</p>
<p>Members on CC have a tendency to respond to your questions.
The tendency of CC members is to respond to your questions.</p>
<p>The 2nd one is an illogical comparison. You can’t compare the hammer to “any tool.”</p>
<p>Hi, OP, I gave a lengthy answer to the same question about “condemn to be tasteless” on another thread; but in brief, here it is again: The viewers condemned the ads as tasteless. The viewers already considered the ads tasteless, and they condemned them on that basis. For this meaning, “as” is used. The viewers did not make the ads tasteless by condemning them. </p>
<p>It is possible to condemn X to be Y, but this has a different meaning. This happens when X is not already Y. For example, one might say that a criminal who has just been sentenced has been condemned to life in prison. He has not already spent life in prison, he has just been sentenced to it.</p>