<p>I've read the explanation but cannot understand. Please help me with this question.</p>
<p>Passage:
By the standards of the day, feminism was very powerful in New York City at the end of the Second World War in 1945—the phrase “male chauvinist” had already been used there. New York women were famously independent,and famously “smart.” Taverns still sometimes declined to serve them, it was true, but even that resilient prejudice had been weakened by the pressures of Prohibition, and it was many long years since the actress Lily Langtry,refused ale and a mutton chop at Keen’schophouse, had taken the management to court, and won. Innumerable women’s organizations sustained this liberty, bolstered the sense of feminine power, providedcultural uplift, offered professional support, or fulfilled charitable learnings.</p>
<p>The author of the passage implies which of the following about the term "male chauvinist"?</p>
<p>A. That it was first used in New York
B. That it was first used in 1945
C. That its use was common only among college-educated women
D. That its use was associated with the Second World War
E. That its use became common outsidee New York after 1945 (correct)</p>
<p>I chose A. Can someone rationalize why A is wrong and E is right ?</p>
<p>Thank you!</p>
<p>I think if SAT readers had no prior knowledge about feminism in the 1940’s this would be a tough question. The rest of the paragraph after the phrase, " “male chauvinist” had already been used there " , talks about how feminism grew despite some obstacles. "New York women were FAMOUSLY independent,and FAMOUSLY “smart.” Feminism thus spread and thus the term male chauvinism would be more commonly used outside of New York to oppose feminism. In addition, if I remember US history correctly, Prohibition and women’s organizations spread throughout United States soon after WW2.</p>
<p>In my opinion, the passage does not specifically-- though all SAT passages should-- indicate or show that feminism appeared in places other than New York and thus this passage deserves some criticisms from whomever. Parents or teachers or who knows…
the SAT organization decides whether students are right but who decides if the SAT organization is fair or right???</p>
<br>
<br>
<p>This is a simple logic question, and the main relevant phrase is this one (above).</p>
<p>“Had already been used” does not imply “first use”. A.) and B.) are both wrong.
Nothing in the passage implies exclusive use of the term “male chauvinist” by any group. C.) is wrong
The second world war is used to establish the timing. Nothing in the passage relates the second world war to the term “male chauvinist”. D.) is wrong
By framing the passage with an example that by a certain date, in a certain location, a term was already in use; the passage implies that it was also in use at other places during/before that time. Assuming the reader is familiar with the term (thus it is appropriate to start the passage with it) implies that its use spread beyond that place in later times. E.) captures this implication.</p>
<p>This dissection using logic (“is it true based on the passage?”) is why it is called CRITICAL reading. It does not require anything beyond reading the passage and understanding what the passage is saying (whether historically accurate or not). Try substituting in the term “fieerstiney peonininanny” for “male chauvinist”. You will see the argument is the same- it is based on the structure of the passage, not the facts of it.</p>
<p>For the “implies” question look for KEY words in the phrase.</p>
<p>…“male chauvinist” had already been used there.</p>
<p>KEYWORDS: “already” used “there” </p>
<p>implies: “later” used “everywhere”</p>
<p>Try this:</p>
<p>“Freedom of speech was finally granted to the citizens of Burgerland in 1999”</p>
<p>what does this imply about “freedom of speech”? (clue: you don’t need to know the history of Burgerland)</p>