<ol>
<li>If f(x) = f^-1 (x) for all real numbers x, what might f(x) equal?
I don't get why the answer is x. </li>
</ol>
<p>thanks!</p>
<ol>
<li>If f(x) = f^-1 (x) for all real numbers x, what might f(x) equal?
I don't get why the answer is x. </li>
</ol>
<p>thanks!</p>
<p>It’s simple: the question is asking, what value of f(x) will be equivalent to its inverse?
The only one that works is y=x. If you take the inverse, it’s x=y, or rewritten, it would y=x. Therefore, f(X) is x.</p>