Why should those who are part of the upper/upper-middle class be given the same consideration for FA or scholarships based partially on need as opposed to those who are lower middle class(making $40-60k/year) or lower income folks who have legitimately greater financial need and didn’t have the same advantages as those from the former group?
This argument is reminiscent of a recent thread where a poster from an upper-middle class family was arguing that taxpayers should be paying for his/her kid to attend an elite private college and not doing so constituted a form of “discrimination” which didn’t garner him/her much sympathy from most posters.