<p>“when is “explanation of” and “explanation for” used? what is the significance of each?”</p>
<p>This is currently under debate. I’ll let you know when the College Board replies to my appeal over the PSAT question that involves this issue.</p>
<p>Sorry for bombarding you with question.</p>
<p>Bill simutaneously listened to music and did homework at the same time because he believed that music enabled him to relax while he studied.
-What’s wrong with did the underlined?</p>
<p>Jocelyn, my friend since high school, believes she ismore well suited to a career in the sciences than to the business career her parents haved urged her to pursue
-is it more suited because more well suited is just redundant?</p>
<p>Even when Barbara Jordan put questions toward a politica nominee, her elegant diction evoked in listeners memories of her eloquent political speeches.
-what’s the correct preposition besides toward? It sounded awkward to me but I couldn’t match a replacement</p>
<p>These novels move willing readers away from their humdrum lives and into a world that is at once fantastic and mysterious
-why is at once right, sounds awkward >.></p>
<p>“Bill simutaneously listened to music and did homework at the same time because he believed that music enabled him to relax while he studied.
-What’s wrong with did the underlined?”</p>
<p>Nothing, but “at the same time” and “simultaneously” are redundant.</p>
<p>“Jocelyn, my friend since high school, believes she ismore well suited to a career in the sciences than to the business career her parents haved urged her to pursue
-is it more suited because more well suited is just redundant?”</p>
<p>“more well” should be “better.”</p>
<p>“Even when Barbara Jordan put questions toward a politica nominee, her elegant diction evoked in listeners memories of her eloquent political speeches.
-what’s the correct preposition besides toward? It sounded awkward to me but I couldn’t match a replacement”</p>
<p>I would change “put questions toward” to “asked questions of.”</p>
<p>"These novels move willing readers away from their humdrum lives and into a world that is at once fantastic and mysterious
-why is at once right, sounds awkward >.> "</p>
<p>“at once” is a fancy little phrase of which I am a fan. It merely means “simultaneously”; the world was both fantastic and mysterious.</p>
<p>@silverturtle or anyone else, </p>
<p>can you please give examples for the application of ‘agreed to’ and ‘agreed with’?</p>
<p>and i read this in a grammar book:</p>
<p>“After prepositions, only gerunds are used”</p>
<p>is this correct, at least for the SAT questions?</p>
<p>“can you please give examples for the application of ‘agreed to’ and ‘agreed with’?”</p>
<p>I agreed to the request. I agreed to go watch the film. The parties agreed to meet.</p>
<p>I agree with that idea. I agreed with your argument. The parties agreed with each other’s ideas.</p>
<p>“After prepositions, only gerunds are used”</p>
<p>If a verb is used, I can’t think of a situation in which a non-gerund is used. There may be exceptions, however.</p>
<p>^^ however, i read something similar in another post:</p>
<p>…he was quick ‘to percieve’ the that the arguments were inconsistent…</p>
<p>doesnt that go against the rule? or am i mistaken?</p>
<p>and also check the definition of credulity: [credulity</a> - definition of credulity by the Free Online Dictionary, Thesaurus and Encyclopedia.](<a href=“Credulity]credulity - definition of credulity]credulity by The Free Dictionary”>Credulity - definition of credulity by The Free Dictionary)</p>
<p>it says ‘to believe’</p>
<p>and is it opposite ‘of’ or ‘to’? when is which used?</p>
<p>OPPOSITE TO most people i know, annie is a…</p>
<p>here opposite ‘to’ is wrong according to collegeboard.</p>
<p>the link seems to help, but it is without a concrete conclusion:</p>
<p><a href=“Ask a Teacher | UsingEnglish.com ESL Forum”>http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/34215-opposite.html</a></p>
<p>can someone please clarify ASAP? (my SAT is tommorow)</p>
<p>Caricaturists evoke humor by blending the realistic with the comedy in portraits.</p>
<p>B: by blending the realistic and the comic
E: through blends of reality and comic</p>
<p>Why is b right and what’s wrong with e?</p>
<p>by blending the realistic and the comic</p>
<p>That’s right because the correct preposition “by” is used to denote action, or convey through a means of.</p>
<p>E: through blends of reality and comic</p>
<p>For some reason, i am finding its fallacy hard to explain. “blends” doesn’t really take on a clear noun.</p>
<p>
</p>
<p>one definition of “the” is:</p>
<p>“(used before adjectives that are used substantively, to note an individual, a class or number of individuals, or an abstract idea): to visit the sick; from the sublime to the ridiculous.”</p>
<p>“the realistic”: the element or quality of realism in literature, art, drama, etc.</p>
<p>“the comic”: the element or quality of comedy in literature, art, drama, etc.: An appreciation of the comic came naturally to her. </p>
<p>the nouns that most apply to these two things are “realism” and “comedy,” not “reality” and “comic.” A comic is a comedian. Reality is the state of being real, not realistic.</p>
<p>Saying “…by blending x and y” is more precise than saying “…through blends of x and y.” It is a prose thing.</p>
<p>
</p>
<p>use the dictionary…</p>
<p>“of” and “to” have many definitions. the definitions that apply to “opposite” are:</p>
<p>“of”: indicates association (“the meaning of the word”)
“to”: indicates relation (“the house to the side,” “i pushed the book to the side”)</p>
<p>“The opposite of the word ‘exceed’ does not exist.”
“There is no established opposite to the word ‘exceed.’”</p>
<p>Notice both forms are nouns. You use “opposite of” if the article is “the” (“x is the opposite of y”) because it refers to a specific thing (“the heir of the throne in 1850”). You use “opposite to” if there is no article (“x is opposite to y”) because it does not refer to something as specific (“heirs to the throne in the 19th century”</p>
<p>“opposite to most people i know, annie is…”
“opposite” is NOT a noun in this case. it is an adjective. a person or thing cannot be an opposite. only qualities or positions can be opposite. </p>
<p>for example you would say
“opposite to the beliefs of most people i know, annie’s beliefs are…”
two people being “opposites” of each other is an idiomatic expression.
using “opposite” as an adjective when only the noun form is an idiom does not allow it to be correct.</p>
<p>“the red house is opposite to the blue house”
“opposite sides of the controversy”
“your side is opposite to my side”</p>
<p>why are these wrong, can someone give me a good explanation.</p>
<ol>
<li>(In a world that) the rate of technological and social change accelerates, …</li>
</ol>
<p>the explanation says that it should be “In a world in which…”
but i think it should be “In a world where…”?</p>
<ol>
<li>The illustrated books by Dr. Seuss (have) managed (keeping) youngsters and adults alike entertained for several decades.</li>
</ol>
<p>the explanation just says that it’s unidiomatic… i know it to should “to keep” but what is the rule for this.</p>
<p>also, is “alike” here used as an adverb or adjective?
Thanks in advance, silverturtle :D</p>
<p>“1. (In a world that) the rate of technological and social change accelerates, …”</p>
<p>Being a relative pronoun, “that” would have to introduce a dependent adjective clause, which it doesn’t. “in which” and “where” are both acceptable. “in which” is preferable, though, because “where” is more physical, whereas “in which” indicates a more conceptual location. “technological and social changes” aren’t physical aspects of the world; they are moreso concepts.</p>
<p>“2. The illustrated books by Dr. Seuss (have) managed (keeping) youngsters and adults alike entertained for several decades.”</p>
<p>Generally, infinitives follow conjugated verbs. However, there are exceptions to this, such as the “suggested to build” question from the recent PSAT. More information on this: [Gerunds</a> after Certain Verbs](<a href=“http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-gerunds_3.htm]Gerunds”>http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-gerunds_3.htm).</p>
<p>“alike” is an adverb there.</p>
<ol>
<li>In Germany, foresters discovered that trees killed by acid rain had begun to die four years (earlier, even though the trees had shown no signs of disease then).</li>
</ol>
<p>Why is it a - (as it is) and not d - (earlier without any signs of disease shown then) ?</p>
<ol>
<li>The revolt against Victorianism was perhaps even more marked in poetry than (either fiction or drama).</li>
</ol>
<p>a- either fiction or drama
b- either friction or in drama
c- either in fiction or drama
d- in either diction or drama
e- in either fiction or in drama</p>
<p>what is the rule? Answer is d.</p>
<ol>
<li>(For the past) hundred years or more, Yellowstone National Park (was) a kind of sociological laboratory (in which) North Americans have been exploring (the meaning of) the national-park concept. (no error)</li>
</ol>
<p>why is (was) the error? Shouldn’t (in which) be (where) because Yellowstone National Park is a place?</p>
<ol>
<li>Beginning photographers may choose from among several camera types, (there is one which is) best for their particular interests. </li>
</ol>
<p>a- as it is
b- of which there is one
c- one of which is</p>
<p>i thought it was b, but the answer is c… i don’t understand why</p>
<p>thanks in advance, i asked a bit much this time :D</p>
<p>For your second question, I think the first 3 are incorrect because they compare the revolt to fiction/drama, instead of comparing the revolt to its portrayal through other media. E is ruled out because the “in” is redundant, I believe. That leaves D.</p>
<p>
</p>
<p>Think about the sentence like this:</p>
<p>Foresters discovered [object] without any signs of disease shown then. </p>
<p>It’s not clear what the phrase starting with “without” is modifying.</p>