Post Writing Questions Here

<p>

No, but it changes the meaning of the sentence.

Sure, that is singular, but the first point that the subjects are parallel still stands as decisive.</p>

<ol>
<li>At a time (when) interest in twentieth-century classical music (seems) on the verge (to disappear), the avant-garde compositions of the 1960s and 1970s (manage) to retain their popularity.</li>
</ol>

<p>I really don’t understand the structure and the tense of this sentence. It looks like it’s talking about the past so I wanted to pick B, thinking it should be “seemed”, but then “manage” would have to be “managed”. Is this sentence in the present tense and why is the answer C?</p>

<ol>
<li>Tell me where you have been and (an account of) your activities there.</li>
</ol>

<p>A) an account of
E) give me an account of</p>

<p>I got it right but I have a question. A is wrong because “tell me an account of” would be wrong. Right?</p>

<ol>
<li>(Uncertain how to proceed with the scene, the actors stopped, awaiting for) further instructions from the director.</li>
</ol>

<p>a) Uncertain how to proceed with the scene, the actors stopped, awaiting for
c) Because they were uncertain how to proceed with the scene, the actors stopped and awaited</p>

<p>I got it right but I have a question. A is wrong because “awaiting for” is incorrect. Right?</p>

<ol>
<li>(Even when) Barbara Jordan put questions (toward) a political nomine…</li>
</ol>

<p>I read previous answers to this question but I’m still not convinced as to why “toward” is incorrect here. </p>

<p>Thank you very much, crazy or silver.</p>

<p>

The whole sentence is in the present tense. The sentence is saying that we people of 2010 are not very interested in classic music from the 20th century. So, even though we currently are losing interest in music from the past, some categories of music (“avant-garde compositions of the 1960s and 1970s”) still “manage to retain their popularity.”</p>

<p>“At a time when . . .” has to agree with the main source of tense, which is the clause “the avant-garde compositions of the 1960s and 1970s manage. . . .” If you move the phrase to the end, it would read: “[T]he avant-garde compositions . . . manage to retain their population at a time when interest . . . seems. . . .” The “at a time” modifies “manage,” which means it has to agree with the tense of “manage” (present)–not the other way around.

Yes, you’re right. If you look up “tell,” the definition is “to give an account of,” so “tell me an account of” is redundant. You’d have to say, “tell me where you have been and your activities there,” if you don’t want to use another verb. “Tell” is often used in the incorrect way in a casual setting, and that’s fine.
[Tell</a> | Define Tell at Dictionary.com](<a href=“http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/tell]Tell”>TELL Definition & Usage Examples | Dictionary.com)

Yes, “awaiting for” is incorrect. You either wait for something or await it. C expresses the idea better and more smoothly, too.

“Toward” should be “to.” I’m not sure if you’re referring to one of my explanations, so I’ll repeat it and try to elaborate further. First, we can take a literal route here: Define the word “put.” In this case, it means “bring up for consideration” or “propose.” You propose something to someone or you bring it up to him or her as if you were giving it to them to consider. Second, we can explain why “toward” is wrong. Compared to “to,” “toward” is a bit more literal. It often has to do with physical motions, like in “I threw it toward (or towards–no difference) you.” “Toward” and “to” are similar in the sense that they denote direction, physical or abstract, but there is a distinction. Other examples of “put to” include “put him to the test,” “put him to death,” and “put it to a vote.” Not all of these use “put” in the same way, but the “put” in “put it to a vote” does (kind of).</p>

<p>I see, thank you. And for the first one, what should “to disappear” be and why?</p>

<p>

Both my proposed edition and the original sentence state that, during the latest corporate crackdown, a company the businessman in question is the head of is/has been under authorities’ investigation. The change would not be in meaning but rather in tense; however, in absence of words of other tenses, the present progressive need not be contextually incorrect.</p>

<p>

Parallel structure does not eliminate ambiguity. John and Steve went to the movies; he wanted to see blah blah.</p>

<p>Even though John corresponds with he positionally, ambiguity is still present.</p>

<p>And btw, to whoever asked the question: verge to disappear should be, idiomatically, verge of disappearing.</p>

<p>Ok, I have three questions.</p>

<p>1) The famous filmmaker [had a tendency] [of changing] his recollections, perhaps [out of boredom] [at having] to tell interviewers the same story over and over. [no error]</p>

<p>2) Norwegian writer Sigrid Undset [is like] the novelist Sir Walter Scott [in] her use of historical backgrounds, but unlike [his books], she dwells on the psychological [aspects of] her characters. [No error.]</p>

<p>3) The television station [has received] many complaints [about] the clothing advertisements, [which some] viewers condemn [to be] tasteless. [No error.]</p>

<p>The answer to 1) is B. Should it be “to change?” The answer is 2) is C. I don’t understand why this is the correct answer. Finally, the answer to 3) is D. Should it be “as?”</p>

<p>Thanks!</p>

<p>^You have the correct explanations for 1 and 3. I’ll attempt to explain question 2:</p>

<p>The error in choice C of question 2 is a faulty/incorrect/illogical comparison. Let me separate the second clause from the first:</p>

<p>

</p>

<p>When you read this, you realize that the 2 things being compared (through “unlike”) are “books” and “she” (a person). You can’t compare books to a person. That’s why C ([his books]) is the correct answer.</p>

<p>

“Verge to disappear” should be “verge of disappearing.” “Verge” means “edge,” the absolute limit reached before something occurs. If you’re on the edge of a cliff, you’re close to falling. If you’re on the verge of a nervous breakdown, you’re close to going crazy. “Of” kind of allows you to say of what the nature of the verge is.

I know. The sentence would be grammatically correct. But changing the tense changes the meaning of the sentence. That’s all I meant to say.

That’s because there’s more than one subject in that sentence.</p>

<p>

Parallelism alone also fails to eliminate ambiguity in sentences with just one subject and an object.</p>

<p>The dog went to see movie A; it was sad.</p>

<p>I got two questions:
1)<a href=“http://oi55.■■■■■■■.com/10ym89v.jpg[/url]”>http://oi55.■■■■■■■.com/10ym89v.jpg&lt;/a&gt;
2)<a href=“http://oi54.■■■■■■■.com/1zzjbz8.jpg[/url]”>http://oi54.■■■■■■■.com/1zzjbz8.jpg&lt;/a&gt;&lt;/p&gt;

<p>I can find the error because it sounds wrong but don’t know the grammatical reason for the error.</p>

<p>

That’s because the logical referent is the movie, which contradicts what we expect the referent to be, the subject. Obviously there are exceptions based on the sentence’s meaning, the structure, etc. Silverturtle’s guide (<a href=“http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/955109-silverturtles-guide-sat-admissions-success.html[/url]”>http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/sat-preparation/955109-silverturtles-guide-sat-admissions-success.html&lt;/a&gt;) has a note on the topic I was talking about, under “Ambiguous Reference Errors”–use Ctrl + F.

Basically, the whole point is that just because there is more than one singular noun in the first clause does NOT mean “it” in the second clause is ambiguous. Meaning and grammatical structure is taken into account; if there is a conflict in the two, then clarification is probably needed.</p>

<p>If would be awesome if someone made a short list (less than 10) of errors to look for when tackling the writing sat. Having a small little checklist you could rely on would make it so much easier.</p>

<p>^^
the first question; is it D? I think it should be- has yet ‘to win’ a championship
the 2nd question; is it C? It should be ‘from moving’ freely.</p>

<p>

Silverturtle’s example does indeed preclude “child” from referring to anything in a sentence because only the arbitrary semantic assignment of “child” can act as a referrent, and not the child itself.</p>

<p>

</p>

<p>From Chambers and Smyth (1998):

</p>

<p>The nominative and objective forms of “it” are the same, so how would you reconcile the last statement of the first quote with the results of Experiment 2 and the overall results described in the second quote?</p>

<p>I’m not sure what those quotes are about because they are taken out of context. I’m not sure what your argument is here. Can you break it down further?</p>

<p>The first one is A, and the second one is C. I don’t know why exactly these are wrong, but the second one seems to be an idiomatic error the first I don’t know. Any one care to help?</p>

<p>I don’t see how the quotations are out of context but</p>

<p>

Because Paul is the object of Josh’s criticism, most people are biased to think that him refers to Paul, as they are correferents occupying the same structural position in their respective clauses. However, Mary could have insulted Josh for criticizing Paul or because Josh ate the last cake in the fridge or something; therefore, the ambiguity of “him” is not eliminated just because it is acting as an object in the same way Paul acted as the object in a separate clause. </p>

<p>

Coherent in meaning but not necessarily devoid of ambiguity.

Exactly what it says.</p>

<p>-Limitations in centering, the theory that ambiguity is resolved by increased coherence if the pronoun in the second of two clauses corefers to the subject of the first of the two.</p>

<p>

Parallel function predicts non-subject (in most cases, objective) assignment.</p>

<p>In summary, a pronoun acting as a subject of a clause need not corefer to the subject of the preceding clause. Linguistical morphology must also be considered.</p>

<p>

The dog could have been sad from watching the movie. Mere structural positioning does not make one meaning superior to the other; hence, the sentence contains an ambiguous “it.”</p>

<p>I got another question:
You cannot expect to treat your friends badly (and no one notices).
(A)and no one notices
(B)and have no one notice</p>

<p>I answered B and it was right but after reading it again I don’t get why notice is plural? Isn’t no one singular and notice supposed to be notices? But A sounds wrong and I chose B. Could any one explain this to me?</p>

<p>no one is singular.
none is singular when used in the sense of “no(t) one” and not “not any.”
Even without knowing that, you could think about it and say hmmm, “one” is singular and “no” simply negates it without modifying its number.</p>

<p>A is wrong because it has a different subject (no one). It’s a run-on sentence in that it requires a comma before the and. Even then, the “clause” introduced by “and” is missing an object of a transitive verb (notice). “no one” has to notice something.</p>

<p>B treats “You” as the subject of both clauses, hence eliminating the need for a comma and allowing “notice” to treat your bad treatment of your friends (slight rephrasing) as its object.</p>

<p>Another question: </p>

<p>Eating food that has a high concentration of fat causes essentially the same reaction in the stomach (than if you eat) too fast.
(A) the same
(B) as eating
(C) as it does when eating</p>

<p>I chose C and it is wrong the right answer is B, could any one explain whats wrong with C?</p>