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1041

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<p>See, what I don’t understand about this one is why anyone would even suggest that “none are” makes functional or etymological sense (with an exception, which I detail-- and which is almost irrelevant, though not quite).</p>

<p>In the same way that “someone” is derived from “some one,” “anyone” is derived from “any one,” and “everyone” is derived from “every one,” “none” is derived from “no one.”</p>

<p>In all of these cases, the group specified has one element, and “one” is the original term on which the prefix operates (and it is a prefix, albeit a forgotten one). In none of the cases do the combination take on a plural nature, except, as some would have it, “none.” </p>

<p>It cannot be etymologically accurate to use a plural form here. Imagine someone saying that this is a correct sentence: “No one are right when it comes to grammar.” But now, “None are right when it comes to grammar,” becomes the correct form? But, by golly: why? It certainly sounds correct-ish, in the sense that all widely-proliferated hypercorrections (or, perhaps, undercorrections) do. But I see no further valid arguments for it. </p>

<p>The argument commonly made is that “none” can also refer to “not any.” Not any x does not imply … see, I don’t need to continue that sentence, and I don’t need to know anything about that x. We already see that “not any” is singular-- it uses “does,” not “do.” Regardless of x, it takes a singular verb.</p>

<p>The rule that allows “any x” to take a plural form is introduced through ambiguity. If I know ex ante that there are no elements x, it is unimportant whether or not I use an “s” at the end of x or not. There are no elements in the set, and I know that. There is no ambiguity. </p>

<p>Exceptions can be found, however, but they are internally consistent with this rule.</p>

<p>For example:</p>

<p>“Are not any of the students sick?”</p>

<p>The ambiguity there allows for the plural form. Could “Is not any of the students sick?” be used? Yes, but it sounds awkward, and if you want to know the answer to that question, the better way to wordsmith it would be, “Is any of the students not sick?”</p>

<p>So, “Is none of the students sick?” sounds awkward because it pulls the not too far forward, but it’s as correct as “Are none of the students sick?”</p>

<p>The important thing to notice here is that there is no case where “none” cannot be treated as singular, and there are very few cases where plural verb forms are a logical choice. So, why treat “none” as plural in any case? Might as well assume it’s singular every time.</p>

1042

<p>I will readily admit, however, that the prevalence of the “none are” form allows for it to be used with reckless abandon, regardless of logic or consistency, so it makes sense that collegeboard wouldn’t want to touch it.</p>

1043

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<p>Yes, that is an issue. Perhaps I chose the wrong approach to that dialogue, as the teacher would notice the same thing in reverse: “I said ‘are any’ and you responded that ‘someone is’. How strange!” Then the explanation would have addressed the subtlety more effectively… but I had to start with my agenda, it seems, at the expense of my point. I could definitely have addressed the issue of number ambiguity in more effective ways…</p>

1044

<p>I know it’s bad form to keep posting and posting, but I had a final point on the issue of “none”… Here, from a website arguing for “none” being plural. I addressed most of its points already, but it brings up some interesting points:</p>

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<p>That it is difficult to avoid gives us a hint. “Almost not any children” is a non-empty set with its members considered separately. So we have no disagreement.</p>

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<p>Now, this one is just silly. “None but a few of the students” is being used as a subject clause. It introduces “a few” members to an empty set and considers them separately. This isn’t an issue of “none,” but of the subject clause.</p>

1045

<p>No need to apologize, JimboSteve–your posts are very interesting. I think you show a real gift for this sort of analysis (if you are a student), and wonder whether you are considering law, linguistics, or mathematical logic as fields of specialization?</p>

1046

<p>I’m not quite sure. I have considered mathematics, economics, and molecular biology, but I’m not sure which one (if any) I’ll settle on. I still have a little while to test them out. I do quite love mathematics, and proofs are nicely challenging. However, I am also very interested in the applications of mathematics to the real world, with the real world as the focus. Knowledge is great, as is truth, but I’m not convinced that they’re so great in the absence of reality.</p>

1047

<p>The extremely cold weather in the Alps has managed (preventing) children and parents alike from going out for a day of skiing.</p>

<p>The answer is preventing should be “to prevent” and I understand “to prevent” sounds better, but is there a rule that tells when infinitives and when gerunds should be used?</p>

<p>Thanks for your help :)</p>

1048

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<p>The verb managed can only be followed by an infinitive. Verbs can be followed by either infinitives or gerunds. Some can be followed by either depending on the situation.</p>

<p>Ex 1. Avoid, delay, deny, detest, consider, mind, prevent, or resume can be followed only by gerunds.</p>

<p>Ex 2. Afford, hesitate, fall, expect, deserve, decide, beg, or ask can be followed only by infinitives.</p>

<p>Ex 3. Begin, continue, cease, love, like, intend, neglect, or start can be followed by either gerunds or infinitives (without really changing the meaning of the sentence).</p>

<p>Ex 4. Attempt, forget, regret, stop, remember, or try can be followed by either gerunds or infinitives (might carry different meanings)</p>

<p>I’m not sure if there is a rule that dictates whether a verb is followed by a gerund or an infinitive. I guess you just have to hear it…</p>

1049

<p>^Thank You so much! :)</p>

1050

<p>Readers of the novice writer’s recent book have said that it is at once frustrating because of its chaotic structure but its originality is still a delight.</p>

<p>A) but its originality is still a delight
B) although it is delightfully original
C) and it is delightful in its originality
D) while being so original as to delight them
E) and delightful because of its originality</p>

1051

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<p>E because it completes the parallel structure.</p>

<p>*frustrating<a href=“adj”>/i</a> because of its *chaotic structure<a href=“noun”>/i</a> and *delightful<a href=“adj”>/i</a> because of its *originality<a href=“noun”>/i</a></p>

1052

<p>Hello again, this time several questions: </p>

<p>1.Despite recent (controversy over) ballot-punching, which (has discouraged) some people (from voting) in local elections, next year many U.S. citizens will attempt to elect a President who (will be representing) their views on the issues.
The right answer here is will be representing. Admittedly, it sounds kind of funny, but can someone post a grammatical reason? </p>

<ol>
<li>(No matter) how many times Julie hears her favourite song, whenever (it) is played on the radio, she (will dance around) the room (as if) she has never heard this song before.
On one hand it seems to me that the whenever clause must modify a verb with present tense, on the other hand isn’t it supposed to be “as if she had never heard …”? </li>
<li>Many critics consider the prose of Baudelaire (equally intoxicating and his poetry is beautiful).
B: equally as intoxicating as his prose
C: as intoxicating as his poetry is
The other possibilites are rubbish. Right answer is C, which seems quite logical to me, but isn’t B also grammaticly not wrong.<br></li>
<li>
(To relax after a long day at work or school, some people like to take a shower; others bathing to release tension.)
B:
"; others bathe to release tension (Right answer)
C:
",others bathe ro release tension.
Why is the comma here wrong, some and others belong together, don’t they?</li>
</ol>

1053

<ol>
<li><p>In standard English usage, the future progressive (will be representing) is generally avoided in favor of the simple future (will represent). There are a few cases where you need the future progressive for some logical reason, but it’s not usually used unless there is some compelling argument for it.</p></li>
<li><p>I think the error here is “will dance around,” which should be simply “dances around.”</p></li>
<li><p>The phrase “equally as X as” is not right. It could be “equally X as,” but you don’t use the earlier “as.”</p></li>
<li><p>The comma creates the dreaded (by CB) “comma splice.” A comma splice occurs when a comma alone connects two independent clauses (each having a subject and a verb, and nothing to make one of them a subordinate clause). In such a case, you need a semi-colon. You can tell, because “others bathe to release tension” could be used as an entire sentence (with the right punctuation), and the rest of the sentence can also stand alone as a sentence.</p></li>
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1054

<p>Obviously someone who knows his way through grammar. Thank you!</p>

1055

<p>The young fish (were) very tiny, yet each of them ate many times its own weight in sold food ever day. </p>

<p>The Blue Book says that it has “no error,” but I put down were. Is young fish singular? Or did I do something wrong again… </p>

<p>Thanks for your help :)</p>

1056

<p>Fish can either be singular or plural. There is no such word, fishes. Plural for fish is fish.</p>

1057

<p>Not one of the students in the advanced chemistry class (have passed a single test with a grade better than a C), but the second half of the course will be easier.</p>

<p>(A) have passed a single test with a grade better than a C<br>
(B) have managed to pass a single test with better than a C grade<br>
(C) have passed a single test any better than a grade of C<br>
(D) has passed having better than a C grade on a single test<br>
(E) has passed a single test with better than a C grade </p>

<p>The answer is (E). This is from the Collegeboard Online Course, so here are the explanations:</p>

<p>Explanation for Correct Answer E : Choice (E) is correct. It avoids the error of the original by making the singular verb “has” agree with its singular subject, “one.” </p>

<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer A : Choice (A) has an error in subject-verb agreement. Even though the plural verb “have” agrees with the interrupting noun “students,” it does not agree with its singular subject, “one.”</p>

<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer B : Choice (B) contains an error in subject-verb agreement. The plural verb “have” agrees with the interrupting noun “students,” but not with with its singular subject, “one.”</p>

<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer C : Choice (C) exhibits an error in subject-verb agreement. While the plural verb “have” does agree with the interrupting noun “students,” it does not agree with its singular subject, “one.” </p>

<p>Explanation for Incorrect Answer D : Choice (D) displays loose modification. This word order fails to make clear exactly what the verbal phrase “having better than a C grade on a single test” modifies.</p>

<p>Could anybody tell me what’s the difference between (E) and (D)? I can’t understand anything from the above explanation… Any help is greatly appreciated :)</p>

1058

<p>Actually, I don’t think CB’s explanation is the best. It is true that the modifier “having better than a C grade on a single test” is a bit loose, because it refers to “one of the students” and the modifier is separated from the subject by the verb “has passed,” but I don’t think there is a problem with clarity, really–what else could the modifier refer to? For sticklers: "To what else could the modifier refer? </p>

<p>I do think that the construction in D is a bit awkward, though. The point is that no student scored higher than a C on any of the tests. Choice E is a valid way of expressing that in English. (Hint: the sentence should be read with “single” emphasized and spoken exasperatedly.) But the use of “single” is a bit ambiguous in itself. The word “single” could refer to some specific, individual test. In E, it’s clearer that the sentence means: “There does not exist a test t from the set of tests T on which any student s in class S received a grade higher than C.” In D, it could be interpreted to mean: “There exists a test t (the single test) from the set of tests T on which no student s in class S received a grade higher than C.” It’s the placement of “better than a C” relative to “a single test” that makes the difference.</p>

<p>It is interesting that CB seems to have abandoned the issue of whether “none” is singular or plural, and is now using “not one,” where there cannot be an argument.</p>

1059

<p>“CB seems to have abandoned the issue of whether “none” is singular or plural”</p>

<p>FWIW, CB has never tested “none” for number on the SAT-W or SAT-II Writing (pre-2005).</p>

1060

<p>Intimacy, love and marriage are three (different, if interrelated subjects, subjects.)
A: as it is
E: subjects that are different although being interrelated.
My question here is:
Doesen’t E make more sense regarding the meaning of the sentence?
After all, the notion of them being interrelated kind of contradicts the difference, doesen’t it?</p>