<p>everyone, the key word is PERCENTAGE. the key fact is sample size DOES NOT affect PERCENTAGE. </p>
<p>Let me give yet another analogy. We have balls, each labeled with a certain number from 1-20. Say there are 100 balls in the 1-10 range and 900 balls in the 11-20 range. </p>
<p>In this case we have NO bias toward any particular number or any particular number range. In essence, we now somehow magically cover up the numbers on the balls for the time being, and we throw all 1000 balls into a huge magical random ball selector machine. </p>
<p>(Note: We can choose randomly if 1) we ignore distinguishing characteristics, like covering up the numbers since it it assumed that numbers make no difference, and 2) we assume that all other characteristics of the balls are roughly similar i.e. colour, texture) </p>
<p>So the ball selector is programmed to randomly and blindly select 100 balls out of the 1000 balls in one single process. What do you think is each ball's chance of being selected? P = 100/1000 = 1/10 = 10%. This applies to every single ball, regardless of number.</p>
<p>Now we take the 100 randomly selected balls and reveal the numbers printed on them. We can all agree now that if the selection is at complete random, 10 balls will be from 1-10 range and 90 balls from 11-20 range.</p>
<p>So what percentage of 1-10 range balls in the machine were selected? ** 10/100 = 10% **
So what percentage of 11-20 range balls in the machine were selected? ** 90/900 = 10% **</p>
<p>Surprise, surprise. Sample size does not affect probability if we assume that the numbers from 1-20 don't matter. Now replace "numbers from 1-20" with "SAT scores from 2200-2400". </p>
<p>But that isn't the case with Princeton's stats, or any other school's stats. There is a positive correlation between SAT scores and acceptance rates.</p>
<p>Now you are going to say that correlation does not mean causation. So name me the cause of the correlation. </p>
<p>Higher scores = usually a stronger all-round applicant? I could also say that, if anything, higher scores = more time spent on academics = less time spent on ECs = negative correlation. Why not? There is no proof either way. This is simply a wild assertion. </p>
<p>Now this thread just seems like a bout of weak rationalization and self-denial. Funny how the statistics are easier to digest if I don't mention the words "SAT score", don't you think? The weak understanding of mathematics - the kind needed in the SATs - exhibited on this thread is probably the very reason for the self-denial that gave rise to this thread.</p>
<p>And oh, if anyone needs to take AP Stats, it's probably not me.</p>