<p>I had an argument with my calculus teacher about this. I am a fan of the whole "correlation does not imply causation" deal (as you should be if you are halfway conscious), and I'm not seeing this as a viable scapegoat for low test scores. </p>
<p>First will CC'ers find some good, researched info on this correlation and post it here? I couldn't seem to find a good study (maybe because this is a disgruntled accusation from poor people with a sense of entitlement...kidding... slightly).</p>
<p>I'm seeing that the argument here is that rich kids have a home environment that is more conducive to intellectual advancement and nurturing. Also, there's the claim that rich kids have more access to SAT/ACT prep sessions, books, etc.</p>
<p>I don't buy into this. While a wealthy student might have his own private library full of classics and medical textbooks, an underprivileged child could easily go check out books at a local library. Same with internet access. And SAT/ACT prep? Prep books aren't that expensive, and really, one can simply check these out of a (school) library as well.</p>
<p>I realize it's not as clear cut as that, but still.</p>
<p>As a middle class citizen myself, I have to argue against the whole prep thing anyway, because frankly, I didn't prep for the SAT/ACT, and I still did well. I most likely would have done just as well without having money (which I didn't use anyway) to prep for these tests.</p>
<p>And finally, why is this important? simply because if this correlation is nothing more than coincidence, then it is harmful to the admissions process. Giving less privileged students a theoretical boost to their test scores hurts the chances of wealthier students. When a wealthy student makes a 2400 and a poor student with a 2200 is viewed as equal, where is the fairness in that?</p>
<p>So yeah, hit it up, CC'ers.</p>