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However, in the case of admissions, would you rather tool yourself to be the exception or the rule? Obviously, you're better off working toward being part of a statistically more successful group than not.
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<p>The community college example was an extreme one, but it demonstrates my point well: not all acceptances to Harvard Law School are distributed to the Harvards and the Yalies.</p>
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You need to look at yield rates from schools in order to better understand whether or not students are successful in being admitted.
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<p>I agree.</p>
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Saying that your friend went to Cal State Chico and got into Yale Law is not indicative of anything if he's the only one out of thousands of applicants that have been turned down.
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<p>Not necessarily. If the applicant pool comprises of students from Harvard and Yale, it is indicative that "school rank" does not always apply in that circumstance. Of course, "school rank" will always play a role in admissions, but I would be willing to bet that an applicant from any school in the Top 25 has as much of a chance as a student from an Ivy. The fact that 134 undergraduate institutions are represented at Harvard Law attests to my claim that undergraduate institution is not everything, nor is it a mere exception to the rule (logically). Moreover, in regard to any Top 5 Law School, it is difficult to predict who will be admitted and who will not on the basis of undergraduate institution since the admit-rate is low. Rest assured, the best you can do is maintain the highest GPA possible, earn the highest LSAT, do a lot of ECs, make yourself unique, and so forth. Transferring to a higher institution may help, but it depends on what instution you are transferring to and where from. I would not recommend that an NYU student should transfer to Georgetown for the sake of having a better chance at Harvard Law School as, in my opinion, the difference is negligible and perhaps the adjustment might have a negative consequence on the GPA.</p>
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And I'm sure you understood what that last sentence meant, no need to be condescending.
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<p>I have been writing a paper on Humean epistemology all day, so I may not be reading your question correctly since I am nearly brain-dead. However, after briefly reading over your question again, I still do not understand what you are asking. Perhaps if I understood the syntactical error being committed, I might have been able to respond, but the question still sounds odd.</p>