<p>Someone just asked this question a few days ago, but from that question, arose some doubts.</p>
<ol>
<li>You cannot expect to treat your friends badly and [no one notices].
A) ...
B) and have no one notice
C) without notice by someone
D) without notice by no one
E) without the result of somebody noticing</li>
</ol>
<p>Answer is B. But wouldn't it be the same as saying: "You cannot expect to treat your friends badly. You cannot have no one notice." except that the sentences are linked with "and"? You can't say "You cannot have no one", but "You cannot have anyone". So, shouldn't the answer actually read: "You cannot expect to treat your friends badly and have anyone notice"??</p>
<p>Thanks.</p>
<p>You can’t change the meaning of the sentence. The meaning is that you can’t do it without someone noticing. B continues with the and (keeps it) which is good. “and have anyone notice” doesn’t make sense grammatically.</p>
<p>“Changes the meaning” is not a rule on SAT Writing, no matter how many people say it is. A, C, D, and E all have actual errors and B does not, so B is the answer.</p>
<p>Guys, I wasn’t asking for the answer. Can you address my question about the “cannot have no one notice” and how’s that grammatically correct when it’s a double negative?</p>
<p>I never thought my question would resurge 
That’s right there could be a problem. However, I believe that I, as well as all SAT - related people, if asked would say that the answer is B because it is “the most grammatically correct”. It’s tolerable though; we have had too much trouble with the answer, let alone the question …</p>
<p>So please ask your English teacher (not SAT teacher). CB is just an organization, so if things go well you can even sue them :D</p>
<p>Personally I always say “and THEN have no one notice”, or add a comma before “and” to indicate two separate clauses.</p>
<p>I would think about choice B not as a double negative, but as a verb-object phrase. No one is a noun, and here “You want to have no one notice”. So it is not the same as “You cannot have no one notice” because the verb for the second phrase is “have”. Choice B is also the only choice with parallel verb structure, so it must be correct. Hope this helps :)</p>
<p>Redviolin, that makes sense. For some reason, I thought “cannot” was being implied in the second part of the sentence. </p>
<p>ursawarrior, as regards suing CB, some other time, hopefully.</p>
<p>There’s an idiom as well: one doesn’t “have” people notice; that’s not a use of the word “have.”</p>
<p>marvin100, the answer is B. So, “having” someone notice seems to be grammatically correct. “Have”, in this case, takes the definition: “to experience”. It’s similar to saying: “have people looking at you” or “have a problem”.</p>