<p>Is there any logical explanation as to why both of these sentence structures are correct: </p>
<p>(1) John will go to the zoo either as a giraffe or as an elephant
(2) John will go to the zoo as either a giraffe or an elephant</p>
<p>Both are grammatical correct but why can we take the 'as' in front of the either in the second- is this a particular grammar rule? Can someone please explain. Is this something about not repeating the preposition? </p>
<p>Here is another: </p>
<p>(1) Jack likes to skip, to run and to jump
(2) Jack likes to skip, run and jump </p>
<p>Both are again grammatically correct as they are both parallel sentences but why can we eliminate the preposition 'to' if we want for the second one? </p>
<p>Cheers</p>
<p>eliminate “to”?
To aint a preposition here! It is the infinitive “To” you before the infinitives… in the second one to goes for “run” and “jump” as much as it goes for “skip”, but it’s understood. That’s y.</p>
<p>Same thing in the 1st example:
u can omit it from the second part, cuz it is understood… nut that doesn’t mean u can omit it from the whole thing…</p>
<p>I don’t think i did a good a explaining did i? lol…</p>
<p>I’m kind of confused as to what you’re asking, but for the first one:
(1) John will go to the zoo either as a giraffe or as an elephant
This is correct because after the either is “as a giraffe or as an elephant”, if you take the as away from the second one, it would lack parallel structure. </p>
<p>(2) John will go to the zoo as either a giraffe or an elephant
This is correct because BOTH statements do not have the as.</p>
<p>either…or pairing provide 2 possibilities. these 2 possibilities must be parallel to each other. i think it’s obvious that we can put ‘as’ in front of ‘either’ here.
there are 2 different options follow ‘as’ because either…or… structure is used here.
as+either (option 1) or (option 2).
for the second one, it’s perfectly acceptable for infinitives to omit ‘to’ after the first one.</p>
<p>Let me make myself clear 
</p>
<p>All sentences listed ARE grammatically correct. There is nothing wrong with any of them. I am just wondering how or why can we take the infinitive ‘to’ out of the second second sentence , why is it okay not to repeat the ‘to’ even though this isn’t strictly parallelism. </p>
<p>Why can we take the ‘as’ out and put in front of the either…or part? </p>
<p>Apologies for not being so clear</p>
<p>i’ve answered both of your questions.</p>
<p>Yangfizz, apologies, why is it perfectly acceptable to omit the ‘to’. There is some rule that I don’t know here. Ill check out the purdue OWL</p>