**June SAT U.S. History Post Test Discussion**

<p>nice, got malcolm x. Got the honeymooners question wrong, thought “***” when i read it.</p>

<p>The lost generation one had a choice that made me lol, something about people experimenting with drugs, which made me laugh during the test considering the name “lost” generation. i put that they were group of writers though who went to europe</p>

<p>@IntoOblivion- yeah thats what I put.</p>

<p>@intooblivion yes</p>

<p>@dapotatoman catholics in maryland</p>

<p>cortana youre right</p>

<p>Can someone make a consolidated list of all questions and possible answers so far? You would become my hero!</p>

<p>What was the EXCEPT question about why Spain colonized? Finding new markets for their industrial goods?</p>

<p>@ACTTester- It was because of European Dominance.</p>

<p>That’s what I put down, ACTTester.</p>

<p>edit: really? damn! another one wrong >_<</p>

<p>ACTTester, that’s what I put. All the other answers were true, and Spain’s industrial goods are like NEVER mentioned.</p>

<p>

Why? Isn’t European dominance a valid reason for colonization?

Yeah, and also this was the Colonial Era. I didn’t see much industrialization occurring at all.</p>

<p>No, it’s not. Actually finding new markets is more of a valid reason.</p>

<p>Well the industrial goods choice is definetely right because thats a key principle of mercantilism.</p>

<p>No, how on earth was it European Dominance? Spain was definitely interested in European dominance</p>

<p>European dominance is irrelevant to Spain colonizing the Americas. If it wanted to dominate Europe it would do it in different ways. However, it did want to find new markets in order to find a favorable balance of trade.</p>

<p>@ACTTester why would european dominance make sense? You wouldn’t colonize america to gain dominance in europe. i can understand where ur coming from. I had a hard time choosing too. but I figured european dominance meant like actual dominance in europe, instead of like having more power than other european powers.</p>

<p>lol floobert, we really have the same mind. It’s kinda creepy.</p>

<p>okay. because im lazy and i dont want to read the rest of them…
For the cattle one, its beef demand. JFK nixon all commie hunters. Spanish-markets for manufactoring: at this point spain was just looking for gold, not commercial markets. Plus the european believed in mercantilism, so by having more colonies they could dominate europe. Cult of domesticity, reason, Monroe- Doctrine- not sure. because it said unilaterial, which i took to mean talking to one country, but it was addresseed at all of europe (that is the only one I think I got wrong.
local affairs i thought it was town meetings (some one check this) the reason why was because even though it was a religious based, they had town meetings which decided most of the things. In addition, religious leaders weren’t really that important. We need to remember that they came over on the may flower and signed the mayflower compact, which was more political than religious.
i think it was money bills.</p>

<p>European countries competed with one another in colonization to gain an edge over one another. Just because they aren’t physically in Europe doesn’t mean colonies have no effect on Europe. Yes, Spain was determined to dominate other European countries in the slave trade, gold/silver, and New World empires.</p>

<p>They wanted a favorable balance of trade which would make markets the wrong answer.</p>