<p>I was reading about it, throughout several articles in class the other day, and I was curious:</p>
<p>didn't the US Supereme Court overrule the will of the people in this case?</p>
<p>or did they not overrule the will of the people in Roe, and instead, abide by the Constitution to back their decision, which was in agreement with the people?</p>
<p>I'm confused...</p>
<p>***change the "overrule" above to "override" - meaning the Court overrides the will of U.S. citizens.</p>
<p>The will of the people has nothing to do with SCOTUS: See Brown v. Board of Education - the SCOTUS' job is to interpret the Constitution and apply it to cases - NOT to be subject to the people's whims.</p>
<p>Exactly.</p>
<p>US Constitution has nothing to oblige to the actual people. The only thing that they are to reference to is past cases and more importantly the Constitution. </p>
<p>Fleeting passions are never a way to rule a government. As which explains why our current government is a republic-democracy.</p>
<p>so how did they reach their conclusion?</p>
<p>The court ruled that women's abortion rights fall within the realm of privacy rights protected by the 14th amendment. This right to privacy, however, ends after the first trimester of pregnancy, after that it is up to each individual state to determine how it wants to regulate the later periods of pregnancy.</p>
<p>soul, that was an awesome response, nicely said, but why does it end after the first tri? is that because it now turns into a "fetus"; which is a potential person?</p>
<p>and before the first tri, it's an embryo, but not a potential person, so is that why she can choose to abort</p>
<p>I actually have read Roe v. Wade, and it is a very interesting read. If you really want to learn about the details of the case and why the court ruled like they did, just go on Google and search for the case file.</p>