Blue Book Critical Reading Questions

<p>Hi, i'm preparing for SAT CR and i have some questions that I don't understand. It'll be much appreciated if you help me out...</p>

<p>On pg. 665 Blue Book Question 14
( the corresponding passage can be found in the following link:
<a href="http://www.cracksat.net/sat/passage-based-reading/test232.html"&gt;http://www.cracksat.net/sat/passage-based-reading/test232.html&lt;/a>
)
(( you have to scroll down to find the right passage once you go to the link))</p>

<ol>
<li>The "fissure" (line 6) was primarily caused by the
(A) civilians' ignorance about the soldiers' experience
(B) discrepancy between the experiences of men and of women
(C) behavior of the officers who led the battles
(D) guilt that civilians felt about sending young men off to war
(E) special privileges granted to war correspondents</li>
</ol>

<p>The answer was A. The college board's explanation for that answer is:</p>

<p>Choice (A) is correct. The first sentence of Passage 1 says that it was impossible for the civilian population to know the realities of the war. Soldiers, on the other hand, knew those realities because they were experiencing them. This is the split that the passage calls a "fissure" (line 6). It is reasonable to see civilian ignorance as the cause of this fissure.</p>

<p>While I did notice the "civilian incomprehension" as the primary cause, I thought it was not quite right to use the term 'ignorance', since not all incomprehension leads to ignorance. For example, you wouldn't necessary ignore a high school test just because do not comprehend the information that's tested on the exam (well, unless you are a complete slacker, but most of us are not). I think that this question may not be a good question. What do you guys think? On the other hand, if you have any good explanations that can help me understand the answer, it'll be great. Either way, share your opinions! ;) </p>

<p>lol I was also confused about this question when I started preparing the SAT.</p>

<p>The sole explanation for this is, lol, “ignorance” is not the noun of “ignore”.
According to Dictionary.com, ignorance means: lack of knowledge, learning, information, etc. Thus, ignorance fits the context perfectly.</p>

<p>Hope this helps!</p>

<p>Thanks! LOL… who would’ve even thought about that! Thank you so much</p>

:wink: