<p>If a man utilizes the services of a prostitute, but regenes on his payment to said prostitute would that be considered rape?</p>
<p>Having thought about it for a while (it was to interesting a question to let it slip IMHO) I came to the conclusion that it is. But I felt like opening the floor for discussion and hear good points from both sides.</p>
<p>I always err on the side of yes, so I say yes.</p>
<p>I guess you could consider it theft (lol), but I don’t know if I’d call it rape… Did the prostitute say no at all?</p>
<p>Huh. Tough question. I mean, she only consented because she thought she would be getting paid, right? So idk. Maybe. If he said he wouldn’t pay her at the end, would she have slept with him? No.</p>
<p>or thievery… Whatever it is, it’s still wrong. </p>
<p>Just wondering, do you always talk like that? You know, formal and intellectual. xD. Lol, “utilizes the services”, “regenes on his payment”. haha I’d say, “if a dude ****s a prostitute, but doesn’t pay her at the end of the night, would it be rape?” xD. but that’s just me.</p>
<p>You should check Nevada law, since that is the only place in the U.S. that allows prostitution (as far as I know).</p>
<p>But it seems more like stealing. Like not paying for a car wash (in the sense that prostitution is a service). After all, the sex is between two consenting adults.</p>
<p>mostly I’m just glad you are in Burma.</p>
<p>^^^Haha, yea. The formal language is kind of odd when you consider the subject matter.</p>
<p>Rape is sex without consent. I’d say the prostitute DID consent to the sex, and the john is in breach of contract.</p>
<p>btw, I tried to look up regene in the dictionary but it wasn’t there. So I had to use context clues. GROSS.</p>
<p>Theft of services</p>
<p>Its like if you don’t pay a locksmith or leave a restaurant without paying</p>
<p>I suppose because of the conditional consent based on money, if that condition isn’t met, I’ll assume that the prostitute would not consent, thus rape by definition.</p>
<p>^lol BryDeeC, exactly. But anyways, it isn’t rape if you enjoyed it. ;)</p>
<p>WHAT? If who enjoyed it? Seriously, guys. Come on.</p>
<p>I personally have the same interpretation as MIT… As I think that if the prostitute knew she wasn’t going to get paid she would have not consented. But I am open to hearing arguments from the other side</p>
<p>Haha I’ve heard this turned into a joke:</p>
<p>“If you steal sex from a prostitute is it theft or rape?”</p>
<p>Or something like that.</p>
<p>I think they’re two completely different situations. If the john straight up tells the prostitute that he doesn’t plan on paying her and she says she doesn’t want to have sex with him but he forces her anyway, that’s rape (apparently, this actually happens a lot :(). If he doesn’t tell her and she willingly has sex with him and he doesn’t pay her afterwards, that’s theft.</p>
<p>Legally, no.
If you were to consider the transaction a contract, the offer fails the legality requirement. Because prostitution is illegal, (unless in utah but i’m assuming were not?) there isn’t a legal contract stating that the man must pay the women.
So no, it’s not theft or rape (because the women agreed to have sex).</p>
<p>my bad, it’s nevada</p>
<p>Now if she lets him go scot free, then she’s a bad hooker.</p>